Valid APS Test Objectives & APS Latest Learning Material
Valid APS Test Objectives & APS Latest Learning Material
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Free PDF APS - Accredited Payables Specialist (APS) Certification Exam –Valid Valid Test Objectives
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IOFM Accredited Payables Specialist (APS) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q54-Q59):
NEW QUESTION # 54
The well-publicized business scandals that occurred in the early 2000s, particularly in the U.S., resulted in legislation that protects which class of employees?
- A. Auditors
- B. Hourly employees
- C. Whistleblowers
- D. Executives
Answer: C
Explanation:
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX), enacted in response to corporate scandals like Enron and WorldCom in the early 2000s. A key provision of SOX is the protection ofwhistleblowers-employees who report fraudulent or illegal activities within their organization. Section 806 of SOX safeguards whistleblowers from retaliation, such as termination or discrimination, encouraging them to expose financial misconduct.
* Option A (Executives): SOX holds executives accountable (e.g., through CEO/CFO certifications under Section 302), but it does not specifically protect them. This option is incorrect.
* Option B (Whistleblowers): Correct. SOX's whistleblower protections ensure employees who report fraud or violations are shielded from retaliation, addressing the chilling effect seen in scandals like Enron.
* Option C (Auditors): While SOX strengthens auditor independence (e.g., via the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board), it does not classify auditors as a protected employee class. This option is incorrect.
* Option D (Hourly employees): SOX protections apply to all employees who report misconduct, not specifically hourly employees. Whistleblowers, regardless of role, are the protected class. This option is incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates,
"The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, enacted after scandals like Enron, includes Section 806 to protect whistleblowers from retaliation when reporting financial misconduct." The training video emphasizes SOX's role in encouraging transparency, noting that "whistleblower protections ensure employees can safely report violations, strengthening internal controls."
NEW QUESTION # 55
Organizations most commonly use wire transfers for which of the following?
- A. Low dollar bulk payments
- B. High dollar payments
- C. Direct deposit of executive pay
- D. Rent or mortgage payments
Answer: B
Explanation:
Wire transfers are a secure and immediate payment method typically used for high-value transactions due to their reliability and speed, despite higher transaction fees compared to other methods like ACH. Organizations commonly use wire transfers for high dollar payments, such as large vendor payments, international transactions, or critical one-time payments.
The web source from Corcentric explains: "Wire transfers are often used for high-value payments where speed and security are critical, such as large supplier payments or international transactions." This aligns with Option B.
* Direct deposit of executive pay (A)is typically handled via ACH for regular payroll.
* Low dollar bulk payments (C)are more cost-effectively processed via ACH or checks.
* Rent or mortgage payments (D)may use wire transfers in some cases but are not the most common use.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers "Payments," including payment methods like wire transfers.
The curriculum's focus on "peer-tested best practices" supports the use of wire transfers for high dollar payments due to their security and immediacy.
References:
IOFM Accounts Payable Specialist (APS) Certification Program, covering Payments Corcentric: "Wire transfers are often used for high-value payments where speed and security are critical"
NEW QUESTION # 56
The general rule for determining independent contractor status looks at evidence in each of the following categories, EXCEPT:
- A. The degree of control the employer exercises over the worker's work results
- B. The job title assigned to the worker
- C. The type of relationship established between the parties
- D. The amount of control the employer has over the worker's finances
Answer: B
Explanation:
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers IRS guidelines for determining independent contractor status, critical for 1099 reporting and avoiding worker misclassification.
The IRS uses three categories:Behavioral Control(degree of controlover work results),Financial Control (control over finances, e.g., payment terms, investment in tools), andType of Relationship(contract terms, permanency). Thejob titleassigned is not a factor, as status depends on actual work arrangements, not labels.
* Option A (The degree of control the employer exercises over the worker's work results): Part of Behavioral Control, assessing how much the employer directs the worker's tasks. This is a valid category.
* Option B (The amount of control the employer has over the worker's finances): Part of Financial Control, evaluating payment methods, expense reimbursement, and worker investment. This is a valid category.
* Option C (The job title assigned to the worker): Not a factor. The IRS focuses on the nature of the work relationship, not the title (e.g., "contractor" vs. "employee"). Correct answer.
* Option D (The type of relationship established between the parties): Part of Type of Relationship, considering contracts, benefits, and permanency. This is a valid category.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates,
"IRS independent contractor status is determined by Behavioral Control, Financial Control, and Type of Relationship, not by job titles, which are irrelevant to actual work arrangements." The training video explains,
"Job titles don't determine contractor status; the IRS looks at control and relationship factors."
NEW QUESTION # 57
In order to get a sales tax exemption on goods purchased for resale, what must the buyer do?
- A. Inform the state in writing that the tax will be paid by the buyer
- B. Provide an exemption certificate to the seller
- C. File a letter of intent with the local taxing jurisdiction
- D. Supply a copy of a sales tax license to the seller
Answer: B
Explanation:
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers sales tax exemptions, particularly for goods purchased for resale (e.g., by wholesalers or retailers). To claim a sales tax exemption, the buyer must provide anexemption certificateto the seller, documenting that the goods are for resale and not subject to sales tax at the point of purchase. The seller retains this certificate for audit purposes.
* Option A (File a letter of intent with the local taxing jurisdiction): Incorrect. A letter of intent is not a standard requirement; the exemption is documented via a certificate provided to the seller.
* Option B (Provide an exemption certificate to the seller): Correct. An exemption certificate (e.g., a resale certificate) verifies the buyer's intent to resell the goods, exempting the transaction from sales tax.
* Option C (Inform the state in writing that the tax will be paid by the buyer): Incorrect. The buyer does not directly notify the state; the exemption is handled between buyer and seller via the certificate.
* Option D (Supply a copy of a sales tax license to the seller): Incorrect. While a sales tax license may be relevant for the buyer's operations, the exemption certificate is the specific document required for resale exemptions.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates,
"To claim a sales tax exemption for goods purchased for resale, the buyer must provide an exemption certificate to the seller, documenting the resale intent." The training video explains, "AP professionals ensure exemption certificates are collected for resale purchases to avoid unnecessary sales tax payments, maintaining compliance with state regulations."
NEW QUESTION # 58
Good vendor master file practices include each of the following, EXCEPT:
- A. Blocking inactive vendors after a certain period
- B. Finding and consolidating duplicate vendors
- C. Having a vendor verification program
- D. Deleting and re-entering vendors that move
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program outlines best practices for maintaining an accurate and efficient VMF. These include verifying vendor data, blocking inactive vendors, and consolidating duplicates to prevent errors and fraud.Deleting and re-entering vendors that moveis not a good practice, as it disrupts historical data and audit trails; instead, the VMF should be updated with the new address.
* Option A (Having a vendor verification program): A good practice, ensuring vendors are legitimate through TIN matches, address verification, and sanction list checks.
* Option B (Blocking inactive vendors after a certain period): A good practice, preventing accidental payments to dormant vendors while retaining their data for records.
* Option C (Finding and consolidating duplicate vendors): A good practice, reducing errors like duplicate payments by merging redundant vendor records.
* Option D (Deleting and re-entering vendors that move): Not a good practice. Deleting and re- entering disrupts transaction history; updating the address is the correct approach. Correct answer.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, "Best practices include vendor verification, blocking inactive vendors, and consolidating duplicates,but deleting and re- entering vendors for address changes is inefficient and risks data loss." The training video emphasizes,
"Update vendor addresses in the VMF rather than deleting records to maintain audit trails."
NEW QUESTION # 59
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